I've been getting a bunch of requests to review Inspiring
Philosophy's video on omnipotence. You can view the link here.
Overall,
I appreciate how IP tries to tear apart absolutism, but the way in
which he goes about it is just bizarre. He seems to think that
atheists are the only humans in existence who have ever held to the
idea of absolutism, and he completely ignores the vast multitude of
Christians who likewise hold a similar position. He also has a
strangely
binary view on the subject. He props up two opposing definitions for
omnipotence as if they were the only ones in existence, and then he
makes it out as if only Christians hold to the "good" view
while only atheists ever defend the "bad" view. Lastly, his
personal view of omnipotence is not at all common among mainstream
Christian philosophy. He
makes it out as if omnipotence is a
kind ability to win fights.
It's really weird, and I
strongly doubt that other prominent Christian philosophers would find
his perspective compelling.
For
convenience, I've transcribed the main points of contention I have
and then added a few points
of discussion. Please enjoy!
IP:
First, let's define omnipotence. Omnipotence simply means "all
powerful." If a being is all-powerful, they would have power
over everything else in existence.
While it is
true that the Latin root for omnipotence does translate
into "all power," that little statement is rife with
ambiguity. There is no singularly "correct" definition for
that term, and I have personally encountered at least a half-dozen
variations in my own research on the subject. So for IP to just
casually assert his own definition as the one and only definition
worth considering is simply disingenuous. All you have to do is type
"What is omnipotence?" into Google, and you'll find all
sorts of competing definitions from authentic Christian sources. For
example, the website AllAboutGod.com says this:
"He
[God] has the ability and power to anything (omni=all;
potent=powerful). This power is exercised effortlessly... God
is all-powerful and able to do whatever he wills. Since his will is
limited by his nature, God can do everything that is in harmony with
his perfections."
Another
website, FreeThinkingMinistries.com, says that
"God
can do all things that are logically possible."
The
Catholic encyclopedia likewise
says
"Omnipotence
is the power of God to effect whatever is not intrinsically
impossible."
So
in less
than five minutes, I was able to find three
online Christian authories who offer totally
unique
definitions from what IP has just given. That's
not a very compelling start, dude.
Now
in all fairness, there is nothing wrong with offering a definition of
one's own. The problem with IP is that he gives zero mention of the
existence of alternative schools of thought
within
mainstream Christianity. Consequently,
he is basically
tossing all of his fellow Christians under the bus and then
pretending
to speak on
their
collective
behalf after
the fact. That's
just pretentious, to
say the least.
IP: No
other being, process, object, or combination of anything in existence
could ever overpower an omnipotent being. Omnipotence simply means
one is all powerful. It could never be defeated by anything else in
existence. In other words, everything else in existence combined
would still be less powerful than an omnipotent being.
The
next thing that bothers me is
the oddly combative
nature of IP's new definition. For all practical purposes, he is
essentially claiming that an omnipotent being is defined by its
capacity to
beat everything
else in a fight. In his own
words, you could take
everything in the universe and pit it against an
omnipotent being. By definition, the omnipotent being will
emerge victorious and everything else will be "defeated."
That's his entire definition
in a nutshell.
Another odd thing about this definition is that it says nothing about typical powers one might associate with a trait like omnipotence. For example, does the omnipotent being have the power to create a universe? Or to read minds? We cannot say. IP frames his entire definition in terms of victory and defeat. In principle, he could be very liberal with this definition to include such ideas, but that would quickly run into wacky problems. For example, maybe we could imagine a "universe creation" contest and challenge two beings to create a universe in the least amount of time or effort. In that sense, the omnipotent being would, by definition, always be the one to emerge victorious. However, once you allow for that sort of unrestricted word play, then it does not take long before paradoxes spring up again. For instance, I could challenge the being to a dying contest, or maybe a truly-state-the-following-proposition contest. The omnipotence paradox would then immediately emerge.
Another odd thing about this definition is that it says nothing about typical powers one might associate with a trait like omnipotence. For example, does the omnipotent being have the power to create a universe? Or to read minds? We cannot say. IP frames his entire definition in terms of victory and defeat. In principle, he could be very liberal with this definition to include such ideas, but that would quickly run into wacky problems. For example, maybe we could imagine a "universe creation" contest and challenge two beings to create a universe in the least amount of time or effort. In that sense, the omnipotent being would, by definition, always be the one to emerge victorious. However, once you allow for that sort of unrestricted word play, then it does not take long before paradoxes spring up again. For instance, I could challenge the being to a dying contest, or maybe a truly-state-the-following-proposition contest. The omnipotence paradox would then immediately emerge.
IP: If
this is all omnipotence means, there is nothing logically
contradictory going on. There is nothing logically incoherent about
being all powerful. And thus, there is no omnipotence paradox.
I agree. There is nothing logically contradictory about this
definition. It's just really bizarre, and I'm quite sure the majority
of mainstream Christian philosophers would be highly confused by it
as well.
IP: The
problem occurs when someone defines omnipotence differently. Instead
of it meaning all-powerful, they define it as the ability to do
anything, which is an incoherent concept.
This is a classic fallacy that I encounter all the time when
discussing the philosophy of religion with theists. There is a strong
tendency for people to argue as if their definition is somehow
objectively correct and that all other definitions are somehow
mistaken. Although IP never comes out and says it, it is strongly
implied by the way he argues his point. He also has this weirdly
binary understanding of omnipotence, as evidenced by the fact that he
is only exploring two distinct definitions. Again, there are at least
a half-dozen of them floating around in the philosophical literature,
many of which come from highly respected Christian authorities.
IP: It
is, in fact, logically impossible to be able to do anything. One
cannot make a being that is married and also a bachelor. One cannot
be evil and simultaneously morally perfect. One cannot have the
ability to create the logically impossible like a square circle or a
married bachelor. These concepts are logically impossible and no
being can bring them into existence.
I completely
agree. Absolutism is not a coherent perspective on omnipotence, and
many academic philosophers further support that view. Even William
Lane Craig has argued many times against absolutism. IP is just
ignoring two important facts in this argument.
(1) It is
perfectly common for Christians to defend absolutism.
(2) There
are plenty of other definitions for omnipotence besides absolutism
and IP's all-power. I've even personally offered some of them myself.
IP:
Luckily, this is not what omnipotence has to mean, as we explained in
the beginning of this video. It just means being all powerful over
everything else in existence. If we have two definitions of
omnipotence, and theists are using the first and some atheists are
using the second, to say an omnipotent being cannot exist, then we
have a straw man argument.
This little jab at atheists is entirely uncalled for. It is perfectly
common for Christians to defend absolutism, and I have personally
encountered several dozen of them on my own video comments. One of
the most famous defendants of absolutism, Rene Descartes, was also a
very devout Christian. My own atheist videos have even argued against
absolutism, and many of my fans seem to agree with the conclusions.
The idea that this is some kind of "theists versus atheists"
dispute is just inexcusable. Either IP is embarrassingly ignorant of
the broader social context, or he is just willfully lying about it.
IP:
Everyone should get to define what they mean; not have definitions
imposed upon them. Thus, claiming it is logically impossible for an
omnipotent being to exist because of the second definition, doesn't
mean it is logically impossible for an omnipotent being to exist
because of the first definition. It is the height of irrationality to
try and force theists to say omnipotence has to be defined in an
incoherent way.
While I agree in principle, this argument is kind of hypocritical. IP
is arguing that everyone should get to define what they mean, which
is fine. But IP is also ignoring the fact that many Christian
authorities hold to entirely different views of omnipotence from
himself. He is therefore complaining about his inability to define
what he means to atheists while simultaneously denying his fellow
Christians that same courtesy.
The other strange part of this argument is that IP completely ignores the plain interpretations of the Bible itself. For example:
Matthew 19:26: But Jesus looked at them and said to them, “With men this is impossible, but with God all things are possible.”
Job 42:1-2: Then Job answered the LORD and said, "I know that You can do all things, And that no purpose of Yours can be thwarted.
So sure, if IP wants to adopt a whole new definition for omnipotence, then that's fine. He just has to specifically deny the Bible in order to do so. It's a textbook example of kettle logic.
The other strange part of this argument is that IP completely ignores the plain interpretations of the Bible itself. For example:
Matthew 19:26: But Jesus looked at them and said to them, “With men this is impossible, but with God all things are possible.”
Job 42:1-2: Then Job answered the LORD and said, "I know that You can do all things, And that no purpose of Yours can be thwarted.
So sure, if IP wants to adopt a whole new definition for omnipotence, then that's fine. He just has to specifically deny the Bible in order to do so. It's a textbook example of kettle logic.
IP: But some
still try to say that the first definition is not true omnipotence
because it means the being is limited in certain ways, and if a being
is limited, then it cannot be omnipotent.
This is one of those fun little games that IP likes to play in his
videos. He says things like "some still try to say...,"
without ever telling us who those supposed people are. I've seen him
do many times. It's a hugely dishonest ploy because we have no idea
how popular this argument is. Is this something you hear from famous
philosophers like Daniel Dennet? Or is this something he read once on
a Facebook post from Billy, the angry 12-year old in his parents'
basement? It's a classic example of weasel wording.
IP is also framing this argument as if only atheists are the ones who
ever argue this. While I suspect that many atheists have indeed
argued this in the past, I also have an entire comment section on my
omnipotence video with dozens of Christians arguing this exact same
point. It's a pointless "us versus them" mentality based on
nothing.
IP: Well the
answer to this is to point out that unlimited is not synonymous with
unlimited. Increasing power doesn't necessarily mean removing limits.
You remove certain types of limits, like ones caused by weakness, but
other types of limits can appear with increased power. For example,
let's picture a being that does not become omnipotent, but simply
becomes extremely powerful over time. As their power increases, they
remove limits caused by weakness, but can be limited by their ability
to form relationships with others. As you increase in power, it might
be harder to relate to other people who feel weak around you, or
threatened by you, and thus power might limit one in this area.
IP: One is
also limited in the amount of fear they have as their power
increases, and thus, they are limited in what they can be afraid of.
These limits, and other similar examples, don't decrease power.
Having more or less fear is independent from the question of how much
power you could have. In fact, one could argue some limits are good
to have and necessary to increase power. For example, it is a bad
thing to be unlimited in the amount of diseases you could contract.
How exactly would having the ability to contract a disease make you
more powerful? Or to have unlimited problems, which would also be a
bad thing and potentially decrease power. Being unlimited in
abilities is clearly not the same as being omnipotent, as certain
limits are good to have and necessary to being all powerful, and some
limits do not affect power at all.
I don't necessarily disagree with the consistency of IPs viewpoint
here. It's just hilarious to me that he thinks omnipotence is
basically the power to demolish everything in the universe. For
example, just read this:
IP: Some
try to argue that if an omnipotent being was also morally perfect,
that would create a logical contradiction. As if you are
morally perfect, you cannot lie for immoral gains, and thus you are
limited by something that could be helpful and give you more power.
But lying or other immoral actions are just abilities that do not
necessarily increase power. They can for some, but they would be
neutral abilities for a being that already has power over everything
in existence. So if a being is already omnipotent, meaning one has
power over everything in existence, having the ability to lie would
not really help him. Lying is something we occasionally use to get
out of a problem or away from people who have power over us. If you
never have to worry about this because of your omnipotent, the
ability to lie would not increase your power, and being limited in
this way does not necessarily decrease power.
See? When you have the ultimate power to smash things, then it
doesn't matter if you can tell a lie or not. It's all perfectly
self-consistent.
IP goes on
for a little while longer, but doesn't say anything fundamentally
new after this. Basically, he thinks that absolutism is bad because violations
of logic are not coherent ideas. In principle, I completely agree
with him on this point. It's just sad to watch IP frame this as a
purely atheistic phenomenon when there are countless examples of
Christians doing the exact same thing. I also find his new definition to be really bizarre. I think most people will agree that omnipotence should entail more than a mere ability to defeat the universe in single combat.
13 comments:
I admit that InspiringPhilosophy's video on omnipotence is hilariously flawed. If we define omnipotence as the ability to beat every single thing in existence it should be able to win Connect 4 against a computer that solved the game playing as the second player. Except that Connect 4, if perfectly played by both players, always results in a win for the first player. Therefore, God can't logically win against a computer that solved the game.
That being said, I do believe that the omnipotence paradox is not really a paradox at all. There is a way to solve at least the most popular definition of the paradox. If you want to I can show you the solution.
The easiest way to solve the omnipotence paradox is to simply redefine omnipotence. Find a definition that is self-consistent while also preserving the basic meaning we've come to associate with that word. But the moment you say something like "a capacity to do all that is logically possible," you've got problems.
I agree that redefining omnipotence allows one to bystep the paradox. I do however think that there is an argument to be made that you can have a being that has a capacity to do all what is logically possible.
I want to warn heads up that I try prove by mathematical induction that such a being can exist. I suggest you read on how such a proof works before you read further, because it involves a similar process.
Suppose for a moment that we have an engineer capable of building an omnipotent machine. Now say to that engineer that it has to do the task for one of those machines to create a rock so heavy it can't lift it. If he creates one machine and it demonstrates that it can create a rock so heavy it can't lift it that machine's power is limited because it can't lift the rock. If it can lift it that machine's power is limited because it can't create a rock so heavy that it can't lift it.
Now we have N machines that are proven to be not omnipotent. We will now add a N+1th machine to the set. If the N+1th machine can lift the rock and the other N machines can or if it can't lift a rock the other N machines can't lift either we have conclusively proven that the machines are not omnipotent. If it is however the case that the N+1th machine can lift a rock so heavy that the other N machines can't lift it or if the N+1th machine can't lift a rock that the other N machines can we have conclusively proven that the machines are omnipotent.
Now I'll be honest that I do believe that this proof is not conclusive. Can you really have N+1 times the same machine? I do however think that it does posit a legitimate question about the nature of identity that I do think is worth tackling.
"Suppose for a moment that we have an engineer capable of building an omnipotent machine"
Full stop. You cannot presume an "omnipotence machine" when the very definition of omnipotence is the point in question. That's putting the cart before the horse.
That's an interesting idea that I indeed did not take notice of. I do however have a problem with this idea and that is that the omnipotence paradox itself assumes the existence of an omnipotent being to prove that accepting the existence of such a being results in a contradiction. It's a classic reductio ad absurdum. Or am I missing something here? How would you redefine the omnipotence paradox in such a way that the definition of omnipotence comes before the attribution of omnipotence to a being?
"the omnipotence paradox itself assumes the existence of an omnipotent being to prove that accepting the existence of such a being results in a contradiction."
The omnipotence paradox does not assume the existence of omnipotence or omnipotent beings. It only presumes a definition for the word "omnipotence." The definition of omnipotence is typically given as:
Omnipotence: The capacity to perform all that is logically possible.
We then derive a contradiction from this definition. Nothing more. So if you're going to argue for or against omnipotence, you have to first propose a definition for that term.
You're right. The omnipotence paradox does not imagine that an omnipotent being exists. All we have to do is him claim that he's omnipotent. I apologize for not realizing this sooner.
In hindisght I don't even have to assert that the engineer builds omnipotent machines. I can simply say that the builder builds machines and that we have to test whether or not these machines are omnipotent. I made a mistake in the Original premise by saying "Suppose for a moment that we have an engineer capable of building an omnipotent machine". I wanted to say "suppose we have an engineer who claims that his machines are omnipotent".
I present now to you the argument again in its retconned version:
Suppose we have an engineer who claims that his machines are omnipotent. You are a tester who has to test that claim. Now say to that engineer that it has to do the task for one of those machines to create a rock so heavy it can't lift it. If he creates one machine and it demonstrates that it can create a rock so heavy it can't lift it that machine's power is limited because it can't lift the rock. If it can lift it that machine's power is limited because it can't create a rock so heavy that it can't lift it.
Now we have N machines that are proven to be not omnipotent. We will now add a N+1th machine to the set and say to that N+1th machine that it should create a rock so heavy that the machine can't lift it. If the N+1th machine can lift the rock and the other N machines can or if it can't lift a rock the other N machines can't lift either we have conclusively proven that the machines are not omnipotent. If it is however the case that the N+1th machine can lift a rock so heavy that the other N machines can't lift it or if the N+1th machine can't lift a rock that the other N machines can we have conclusively proven that the machines are omnipotent.
In hindsight I do think this argument is flawed. The same line of reasoning can be used to claim that someone can create a married bachelor, but I just don't see where exactly where the fallacy lies. Can you help me out?
"You are a tester who has to test that claim"
I can't test for omnipotence if you do not tell me what omnipotence is supposed to be. What am I testing for? What properties must I measure before I can be satisfied that the machine is omnipotent? You are fixating on machines and rocks and lifting when you should be focused on the simple definition of that word.
You're right. It does not prove that such a being is omnipotent. It merely proves that a set of machines can create a rock so heavy that they couldn't lift it and yet lift it. It does not prove omnipotence, it merely disproves the classic formulation of the paradox, if the logic would be correct.
I think I have to retcon it again:
Suppose we have an engineer who claims that his machines can create a rock so heavy that they can't lift it and can lift the same rock. You are a tester who has to test that claim. Now say to that engineer that it has to do the task for one of those machines to create a rock so heavy it can't lift it. If he creates one machine and it demonstrates that it can create a rock so heavy it can't lift it it can't lift the rock. If it can lift it it can't create a rock so heavy that it can't lift it.
Now we have N machines can't do this task. We will now add a N+1th machine to the set and say to that N+1th machine that it should create a rock so heavy that the machine can't lift it. If the N+1th machine can lift the rock and the other N machines can or if it can't lift a rock the other N machines can't lift either we have conclusively proven that the machines can't create a rock so heavy that they can't lift it and lift the same rock. If it is however the case that the N+1th machine can lift a rock so heavy that the other N machines can't lift it or if the N+1th machine can't lift a rock that the other N machines can we have conclusively proven that the machines can create a rock so heavy that they can't lift it and yet can lift the rock.
I think I found the problem with this argument that tries to prove that the omnipotence paradox is not a paradox at all. It's that it tries to solve it using logic that's not used within framework of the paradox itself. The omnipotence paradox is written within the framework of binary logic. More specifically, it relies on the law of non-contradiction to work. When I used the idea of the machine that can't create a rock so heavy that they can't lift it it is analogous to supposing 2 real worlds where things in 1 world don't necessarily have to be true in the other. In world 1 the machine can't lift the rock it created and in world 2 the machine can lift the rock it created, therefore the omnipotence paradox doesn't apply to that situation. However, the logical rules in such a scenario would be vastly different from those in binary logic because they admit contradiction. Saying of an event that it happened in world 1 and didn't happen in world 2 is a fully valid sentence, even if it is at its core a contradiction.
Hey can you make a in depth video of Thomas Aquinas five ways for the evidence of god which many apologetics (especially catholic which i use to be one) that is a combination of the Cosmological argument, Teleological Argument and Transcendental argument for God. For some reason that theist defend this argument to the grave and anybody that refute it on you tube like Milwaukee Atheist and Rationality Rules that in the comment section that they almost always say on the lines like you don't understand his argument/theology/definition and etc. and one comment said that all atheist and agnostic make this mistake and that is way they don't understand philosophy. Pleas read Thomas work Summa Theologica his point.
Hydrolythe, I think you're trying to say that this engineer has built a set of machines that, when all their possible actions are summed together, consist of every logically possible action, thus making the set omnipotent by the disputed definition. If that's the case, then the flaw in your reasoning is that it doesn't test the maxhinma acting against one another. To reformulate the paradox, is the rock-making machine capable of making a rock so heavy that the rock-lifting machine can't lift it? Either way you answer, the machines aren't capable of doing the other, therefore that cannot do all that it logically possible.
I could be misunderstanding your analogy, though.
Playing connect 4 goes against his essence, not because he can't do it but because IP's God would simply punch his opponent in the face.
The whole "creator of the universe" thesis pale in comparison to god's mighty knuckles
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